Moore contracted in writing to sell her 2012 hyundai santa fe to hammer for $16,500. moore agreed to deliver the car on wednesday, and hammer promised to pay the $16,500 two days later, on friday. on tuesday, hammer informed moore that he would not be buying the car after all. by friday, hammer had changed his mind again and tendered $16,500 to moore. although moore had not sold the car to another party, she refused the tender and refused to deliver. hammer claimed that moore had breached their contract. moore contended that hammer's repudiation released her from her duty to perform under the contract. who is correct, and why?

Respuesta :

Moore is in the right here. If he has Hammers repudiation in writing, then he would have the legal grounds to claim that the contract was voided by Hammer in court. If you say that you are no longer going to adhere to a contract, the contract becomes void at that point, and the other party no longer has any responsibility to honor the contract.