Respuesta :
Answer: 52%
Step-by-step explanation:
Let the original price be 100.
After 40% reduction, price will be 100 - 40% = 60
After further 20% reduction, price will be 60 - 20% = 48
%age = (cur val - orig. val ) / orig val x 100
= (48 - 100) / 100 x 100%
= -52
The actual percentage of reduction is 52%
The first reduction is given as:
[tex]r_1 = 40\%[/tex]
The second reduction is given as:
[tex]r_2 = 20\%[/tex]
Assume that the original price of the item is x.
After the first reduction of 40%, the new price would be:
[tex]New = x\times (1 -r_1)[/tex]
So, we have:
[tex]New = x\times (1 -40\%)[/tex]
[tex]New = x\times 0.6[/tex]
[tex]New = 0.6x[/tex]
After the second reduction of 20% on the reduced price, the new price would be:
[tex]New = 0.6x\times (1 -r_2)[/tex]
So, we have:
[tex]New = 0.6x\times (1 -20\%)[/tex]
[tex]New = 0.6x\times 0.8[/tex]
[tex]New = 0.48x[/tex]
Recall that the original price is x.
So, the actual reduction is:
[tex]Actual = \frac{x - 0.48x}{x}[/tex]
[tex]Actual = \frac{0.52x}{x}[/tex]
Divide
[tex]Actual = 0.52[/tex]
Express as percentage
[tex]Actual = 52\%[/tex]
Hence, the actual percentage of reduction is 52%
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